Can i be held liable for foreclosure if my name isn't on the mortgage?
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Hi, I'm currently going through a divorce with my husband, he has no job and is unable to pay the mortgage on our home, but it is in his name. I left him about seven months ago and filed for divorce.. he and his lawyer are trying to get as much money out of me as they can. I'm being advised that I should move back into the house, but I can't reasonably afford to pay the mortgate there by myself and pay him spouse support. So my question is this: We live in Texas, which is a community property state, by law, even though his name is on the mortgage and mine is not, can I still be held liable in the event that the house goes to foreclosure? He hasn't made a payment on the house since I left, I don't know how the house hasn't already gone into foreclosure to be honest. Any advice or help is appreciated.. I've looked all over the Texas laws concerning foreclosure and can't find a concrete answer to my question.
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Answer:
Get your own lawyer. A simple answer is: Yes. Understand that even if the divorce decree assigns debt payments to one party, the lender is not a signatory to the agreement. The lender can still come after either party. In TX, if hubby solely incurred a mortgage debt to provide shelter to the community (family) the debt is equally owe by both parties. Debts. In community property states, most debts incurred by either spouse during the marriage are owed by the "community" (the couple), even if only one spouse signed the paperwork for a debt. The key here is during the marriage. So if you incur a debt, such as a student loan, while you're single, and then get married, it won't automatically become a joint debt. (An exception is where a spouse signs on to an account as a joint account holder after getting married.) Some states, like Texas, have a more nuanced way of analyzing who owes what debts by evaluating who incurred the debt, for what purpose, and when. After a legal separation or divorce, a debt is generally owed only by the spouse who incurred the debt, unless the debt was incurred for family necessities, to maintain jointly owned assets (for example, to fix a leaking roof), or if the spouses keep a joint account. http://www.raggiolaw.com/txart05.html
Bryand at Yahoo! Answers Visit the source
Other answers
I think people are overcomplicating things. If you're not on the loan, then you are not responsible to pay the loan back. Yes you are a title holder, but if the house goes into foreclosure the only net effect is that you lose the house. The bank cannot go after you since you were not on the loan.
Jim
Who told you to move back in?That doesn't sound right to me,as it would make you liable for some payment.The best thing you can do is look at the mortgage papers if you can and see what it says about who is liable.I really don't think you are responsible if you never signed any papers.The best thing is to call a lawyer.
Liz
Get a lawyer, I really don't think you should be trusting advice on here for something so specific as this. Having said that I don't think you can be held liable since your name isn't on the mortgage and who is advising you to move in - him? his lawyer? You need professional legal advice, even if its just one meeting with a local lawyer.
bull_rooster_aardvark
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