Explain why 1 mole of a real gas would not have a volume of 0 L at absolute zero (O k) at a pressure of 1 atm
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at a pressure of 1 atm as predicted by the ideal gas law and charles' law, even if it remains gaseous
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Answer:
kind of funny how this is exactly what im studying in school right now. (9th chem) one mole (6.02 * 10^23) of gas at absolute zero at 1 atm would have volume. That is, if it is a real gas as you said. According to the ideal gas law, we assume two incorrect things about gases: 1. gases consist of particles with negligible mass. Actually, each particle has mass. 2. when gas particles collide, the collisions are completely elastic (that means all the energy is preserved). The collisions actually give off some heat due to friction. Anyway, it is impossible to have a gas at absolute zero (actually, it is impossible to reach absolute zero at all). If the temperature sunk that low, then the particles would lose all their kinetic energy and become a solid. But, since you are dealing with a real gas, and not an ideal gas, the reason it would not have a volume of 0L is because it has mass and mass takes up space, therefore it has volume.
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Other answers
Because it has mass.....it would be impossible for a mass to have no volume, as this would mean it is infinitely dense (from Density = Mass / Volume.)
Doctor Q
An ideal gas would. One of the assumptions of an ideal gas is its molecules occupy no volume.
AaronX
At total absolute zero temperature (unattainable), molecular motion ceases completely...no molecular motion.... no substance....no volume.
Norrie
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