How did languages/dialects develop as "rhotic" or "non-rhotic"?
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And sometimes one style or the other is looked down upon? Northern European languages (including British English) are mostly non-rhotic, but Romance/Slavic/Semitic languages seem to be the opposite. Even in America different regions can't agree on this. In the South every state is different. New Orleans as a city is famously non-rhotic. African Americans seemed to have learned a non-rhotic Southern dialect at one point in time. New York is famous for being non-rhotic. California's accent is the "standard" in America against which all others are judged. I think we know which camp it falls into.
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Answer:
This is not a subject on which you can enjoy a serious debate in Yahoo!Answers. You need to be speaking to professional specialists in Linguistics. And, no, you are wrong: California's accent is NOT the "standard" in the US. General, or Standard American, English, the US equivalent of Received Pronunciation in the UK, is an educated version of the Midwestern accent.
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This is not a subject on which you can enjoy a serious debate in Yahoo!Answers. You need to be speaking to professional specialists in Linguistics. And, no, you are wrong: California's accent is NOT the "standard" in the US. General, or Standard American, English, the US equivalent of Received Pronunciation in the UK, is an educated version of the Midwestern accent.
Lili
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