For an object to be in equilibrium, besides just translational equilibrium (net force is zero) and rotational equilibrium (net torque is zero), does the object need to be in vibrational equilibrium as well? If so, what's the reason?
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Answer:
Vibration is cause by internal forces within the body (which do not affect an object's equilibrium) or external forces acting on the body (which are part of the translation and rotation you mentioned). Thus there is no such thing as vibrational equilibrium.
Tim Carlson at Quora Visit the source
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