Why is it that a purportedly secular nation like India allows the existence of openly communal political parties and/or parties that have an openly communal manifesto?
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I have always failed to realise why political parties with openly communal manifestos are allowed to contest elections in a nation with a secular constitution. Wouldn't it be more consistent to make the eligibilty of parties which promote the welfare of one particular community over others invalid. My only purpose in asking this question is to understand the mechanics behind the constitution and its secular claims and also whether doing so would compromise on the concept of democracy.
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Answer:
The Indian Constitution prohibits any discrimination by the State on the basis of religion, and allows the people to follow the beliefs and religion of their own choice. This makes India secular. The Constitution also gives freedom to form associations. So if an association if formed to promote the interests of a particular community, it is not inherently illegal. But if such associations poses threats to the integrity of the nation or to the public order, reasonable restrictions can be imposed on them by the State. If members of a political party, when out of power, spreads hatred among communities, they can be charged under relevant sections of the IPC and in rare cases the party itself may be banned. When such a political party forms the government, its discriminatory policies and laws can be directly challenged in the Supreme Court for violations of fundamental rights.
Vipul Bawa at Quora Visit the source
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